The Lord's Annointed

David Hill (10 Mar 2000) "The Lord's Annointed"

Psa 21:4 He asked life of thee, and thou gavest it him, even length of days for ever and ever.

I wanted to finish this post with one more major passage of Scripture. In fact, for me, this was the proof text for all that I have already posted. For, I had seen these other passages, and actually many more besides, where the Bible mentions this individual, almost in passing, but these were the major passages.

While I was in Israel a couple of years ago, I purchased a book at a Christian Book store at Jaffa Gate. The book was written by a Scholar who had studied Judaism indepth, including the Rabbinical literature. Unfortunatly, I can't remember his name or the title of this book. It had something to do with the Messiahic passages in the Old Testament and Rabbinical Literature. He had many interesting things to say, and apparently is a popular author among the Christians over there, though I had not heard of him until I went to Israel.

Of all the things that he mentioned however, the one that caught my eye was his comments concerning Psalms 21. What he said was that, according to the Rabbinical literature, this was considered a Messianic Passage. However, he went on to say that the Church DID NOT consider this passage to be Messianic. As of right now, in this dispensation, while Israel is 'estranged' from the Lord because of their sins (Old Testament), then it is the Church who has the most authority concerning matters of Theology, and it is the Church's decision concerning this passage that we must espouse.

The reason that the Church doesn't consider this passage as Messianic, is the verse that I quote at the begining of this post. For here, this individual, asks life from the Lord, and receives it, even for ever and ever- WITHOUT EXPERIENCING PHYSICAL DEATH. This is the very reason that the Church decided that this can not be refering to Yeshuah, for He was the only person that was specifically 'born to die' and that for our sins. The individual in the Psalms does not die, but is promised to live forever.

Now, the proof that the Jews considered this passage to be Messianic is contained in the New Testament for us. For, on one occasion, the Lord mentioned His impending death, and the Jews stated that , "We have heard that the Messiah abides forever." It is this Psalms that they received this teaching from. Yeshuah DOES NOT apply the passage to Himself, but compares Himself as The Messiah, to the Sun shining in all its Glory. This is how Yeshuah will look when He comes back. He also did not state that He was going to 'live forever' and thus excape death. For He had to die for our sins.

The individual in the passage is specifically called king, and is promised to live forever. We know that this can not be King David, who passed away and will be ressurected. This Psalms is still future, and requires an individual who is 'annointed' as king (prince) of Israel, who asks for life from the Lord (who in this passage is specifically Yeshuah-see note below...) and is granted it. This is possible of one who lives through the tribulation and enters the Kingdom. It would then be possible for this individual's life to be extended indefinately. But this is obviously not the case of anyone in the past. As well, one of the verses in the passage unmistakenly points to the fires of the Tribulation.

So, this passage becomes a proof text for the rest of my posts, and agrees with them as well. That someone is left behind at the Rapture and lives through the Tribulation, to be annointed to the position of Prince, reigning on the Davidic Throne, under the direct authority of Yeshuah Messiah, who places him on His throne. Every where the Bible agrees in its account of this individual. And there are more passages as well that support this. These are the main ones, that have the most to say about this individual.

If anyone can show me where my theology is wrong concerning these passages, it would be greatly appreciated if they would point it out to me. If not, then I will assume that my interpretation is correct...

Note: I have come to the conclusion that in all prophetic passages that are still future, then whenever you see The Lord mentioned, that it is specifically refering to The Lord Yeshuah Messiah (actually the entire GodHead, but specifically as far as we are concernig Yeshuah), unless it is obviously refering to Abba or Shalmah (i.e. The Ancient of Days would be Abba etc). If this is considered a valid observation, then there are many passages that are refering to this individual, more then most would assume. For instance, in Hab 3:13, "The Lord comes out to save His people, to save with His annointed." If the Lord here is Yeshuah (which really can't be otherwise) then the annointed is someone else-and perhaps the NIV's interpretation here would be correct, for the it reads that the Lord came out to save His people and His annointed. This is the verse (and version) that the Lord used to open up this teaching to me. The NIV makes more sense in another way, for then the annointed is compared to (and with) his people. I believe that this is common Hebrew usage, but forget what it is called.